Which of the following is ordinarily performed last in the audit examination? a. Securing a signed engagement letter from the client. b. Performing tests of controls. c. Performing a review for subsequent events. d. Obtaining signed written representations.
> The following subsequent event was disclosed in Dole Food Company’s 2009 annual report: Note 24: Subsequent Event On February 27, 2010, a significant earthquake struck the country of Chile. Although Dole’s Chilean operations resumed business after the e
> Subsequent knowledge of which of the following would cause the entity to adjust its December 31 financial statements? a. Sale of an issue of new stock for $500,000 on January 30. b. Settlement of a damage lawsuit for a customer’s injury sustained Februar
> Pat Colt is auditing the financial statements of Manning Company. The following is a summary of the uncorrected misstatements that Colt has identified during the past three years. These misstatements are immaterial and have related to isolated matters. I
> During the conduct of an audit, auditors may identify misstatements as a result of the completion of their substantive procedures. An important activity performed in the completion stages of the audit is considering the materiality of misstatements ident
> Aaron Rivers, CPA, is auditing the financial statements of Charger Company, a client for the past five years. During past audits of Charger, Rivers identified some immaterial misstatements (most of which relate to isolated matters and do not have common
> Faye Jaworski, CPA, is auditing the financial statements of Fulbright Company. As she is nearing the audit completion date, Jaworski realizes that she needs to evaluate whether all material contingencies are properly accounted for and disclosed in Fulbri
> The firm of Cole & Cole, CPAs, is auditing the financial statements of Consolidated Industries Co. for the year ended December 31, 2017. On March 6, 2018, C. R. Brown, Consolidated’s chief financial officer, gave the auditors a draft of an attorney lette
> Classify each of the following issues according to whether they will be (1) included in written representations in all audits, (2) included in written representations in audits of public entities (under PCAOB standards), or (3) not included in written re
> If the entity is subject to PCAOB requirements regarding communication about control deficiencies (AS 1305), what written representations should auditors obtain from the client with respect to internal control over financial reporting?
> Each of the following statements is a communication from management. Indicate whether the inclusion of each statement in written representations is appropriate. Provide your rationale for any statements whose inclusion in written representations is not a
> During the audit of the annual financial statements of Amis Manufacturing Inc., the company’s president, Vance Molar, and Wanda Dweebins, the engagement partner, reviewed matters that were supposed to be included in written representations. Amis Manufact
> Hart, an assistant accountant with the firm of Better & Best, CPAs, is auditing the financial statements of Tech Consolidated Industries Inc. The firm’s audit plan calls for the preparation of written representations. Required: a. In an audit of financi
> The scope of an audit is not restricted when an attorney letter limits the response to a. Matters to which the attorney has given substantive attention in the form of legal representation. b. An evaluation of the likelihood of an unfavorable outcome of t
> Which of these substantive procedures is not used to obtain evidence about contingencies? a. Scanning expense accounts for credit entries. b. Obtaining a letter from the client’s attorney. c. Reading the minutes of the board of directors’ meetings. d. Ex
> The primary reason auditors request responses to attorney letters is to provide auditors a. The probable outcome of asserted claims and pending or threatened litigation. b. Corroboration of the information furnished by management about litigation, claims
> Which of the following substantive procedures would auditors most likely perform to obtain evidence about the occurrence of subsequent events? a. Recompute a sample of large-dollar transactions occurring after the date of the financial statements for ari
> Which of the following substantive procedures should auditors ordinarily perform regarding subsequent events? a. Compare the latest available interim financial statements with the financial statements being audited. b. Send second requests to the client’
> What is an auditor’s primary method to corroborate information on litigation, claims, and assessments? a. Examining legal invoices sent by the client’s attorney. b. Verifying attorney–client privilege through interviews. c. Reviewing the response from th
> Hall accepted an engagement to audit the year 1 financial statements of XYZ Company. XYZ completed the preparation of the year 1 financial statements on February 13, year 2, and its auditors began the fieldwork on February 17, year 2. Hall completed gath
> What are the major categories of information contained in written representations?
> Which of the following statements is not true with respect to written representations? a. The failure of management to furnish them is a significant scope limitation, resulting in either an adverse opinion or a disclaimer of opinion. b. They should addre
> After the audit report release date, auditors determine that an important auditing procedure was omitted. Which of the following initial courses of action is most appropriate? a. Perform the omitted procedure or an alternative procedure. b. Notify the bo
> Which of the following best describes the role of analytical procedures near the end of the audit engagement? a. To identify possible deficiencies in the client’s internal control over financial reporting. b. To identify accounts that appear to be missta
> When reporting under GAAS, certain statements are required in all auditors’ reports (“explicit”) and others are required only under certain conditions (“implicit”).
> Identify information that auditors are required to communicate to individuals charged with governance of the client.
> What steps should auditors take if, after the audit report release date, they discover that an important audit procedure was omitted?
> Which of the following statements is most likely to be included in an attorney letter? a. “Certain representations in this letter are described as being limited to matters that are material.” b. “If any unasserted claims or assessments are omitted from t
> What is the purpose of dual dating the auditor’s report?
> What are auditors’ responsibilities for subsequently discovered facts if these are identified (a) prior to the audit report release date and (b) following the audit report release date?
> What is an updated report? What is a reissued report?
> In addition to obtaining responses to attorney letters, what other procedures can be used to gather audit evidence regarding litigation, claims, and assessments?
> Identify the two types of subsequent events. How should information about these events be reflected in the financial statements?
> What procedures do auditors perform to identify subsequent events?
> What alternatives are available to auditors for reporting on the financial statements and internal control over financial reporting in the audit of public entities?
> What are some of the benefits of audit documentation review to a public accounting firm?
> What is an engagement quality review?
> Describe the audit documentation review process in a public accounting firm.
> Identify the two methods of evaluating the performance materiality of uncorrected misstatements. What are the requirements of Staff Accounting Bulletin No. 108 for evaluating the performance materiality of these misstatements?
> What is the typical content of attorney letters?
> What are the responsibilities of (a) client management, (b) auditors, and (c) the client’s attorneys with respect to obtaining evidence regarding litigation, claims, and assessments?
> Identify the reports that accompany the financial statements of public entities and nonpublic entities.
> Ambrose is auditing the financial statements of Mays (dated December 31, 2017). The date of the auditor’s report is February 17, 2018, and the audit report release date is February 20, 2018. For which of the following matters would Ambrose have the least
> Identify the four major sections of the auditors’ standard (unmodified) report for a nonpublic entity and the major contents of each section.
> How are analytical procedures used near the end of the audit?
> What are the audit requirements for nonpublic and public entities?
> Identify four primary periods in an audit examination and the tasks and activities that occur in each.
> To whom is the auditors’ report addressed?
> Briefly describe the options and information provided by auditors when engaged to report on (a) summary financial statements and (b) supplementary information?
> What reporting options are available if predecessor auditors examined prior years’ financial statements presented in comparative form?
> If auditors wish to express a different opinion on prior years’ financial statements in the current report than in a previously issued report, how should their current report be modified?
> What is the auditors’ reporting responsibility for (a) other information accompanying the audited financial statements and (b) required supplementary information?
> What is an uncorrected misstatement? What is the auditors’ responsibility for communicating misstatements detected during the audit?
> What are going-concern uncertainties? What is the auditors’ responsibility for evaluating going concern uncertainties?
> What types of matters would result in the auditors’ report being modified for consistency?
> Define emphasis-of-matter and other-matter paragraphs. What type of information do auditors provide in these paragraphs?
> What options are available to group auditors when component auditors are involved in the examination of group financial statements?
> When a scope limitation exists, how would the standard (unmodified) report be modified to express (a) a qualified opinion and (b) a disclaimer of opinion?
> If a scope limitation exists and auditors cannot perform alternative procedures, what are the auditors’ reporting options?
> What are the major differences in wording for qualified opinions and adverse opinions issued as a result of departures from GAAP?
> Explain the effect of pervasiveness on the auditors’ report when the entity uses an accounting method that departs from GAAP.
> Which of these persons generally does not participate in writing the management letter? a. Client’s outside attorneys. b. Client’s accounting and production managers. c. Public accounting firm’s audit team on the engagement. d. Public accounting firm’s c
> What are the types of opinions and the conclusion of each type of opinion?
> Define group auditors and component auditors. What issues are introduced when component auditors examine a division, subsidiary, or segment of group financial statements?
> Which of the following normally occurs earliest in the audit examination? a. Discovery of an omitted audit procedure. b. Dual dating the auditor’s report on the entity’s financial statements for subsequent events that exist at the date of the financial s
> A major objective of written representations is to a. Shift responsibility for financial statements from the management to auditors. b. Provide a substitute source of audit evidence for substantive procedures that auditors would otherwise perform. c. Pro
> Follow the instructions preceding Problem 9.61. Write the audit approach section following the cases in the chapter. The following is an excerpt from an article, “Memory Chip Trader Gets 14 Years for Bank Fraud,” The Straits Times (Singapore), February 1
> The auditor tests the quantity of materials charged to work-in-process by vouching these quantities to a. Cost ledgers. b. Perpetual inventory records. c. Receiving reports. d. Material requisitions.
> When testing a company’s cost accounting system, the auditor uses procedures that are primarily designed to determine that a. Quantities on hand have been computed based on acceptable cost accounting techniques that reasonably approximate actual quantiti
> When evaluating inventory controls, an auditor would be least likely to a. Inspect documents. b. Make inquiries. c. Observe procedures. d. Consider policy and procedure manuals.
> An auditor would vouch inventory on the inventory status report to the vendor’s invoice to obtain evidence concerning management’s balance assertions about a. Existence. b. Rights and obligations. c. Completeness. d. Valuation.
> An auditor most likely would analyze inventory turnover rates to obtain evidence concerning management’s balance assertions about a. Existence. b. Rights and obligations. c. Completeness. d. Valuation and allocation.
> Which of the following auditing procedures probably would provide the most reliable evidence concerning the entity’s assertion of rights and obligations related to inventories? a. Trace test counts noted during the entity’s physical count to the entity’s
> Explain dual-direction sampling in the context of inventory test counts.
> What characteristics should be considered in reviewing a client’s inventory-taking instructions?
> ABC Company has 100 shares of IBM stock that it holds as an investment. The stock was purchased three years ago and has been in the client’s safe deposit box along with other investment securities. During an inspection of securities held by the client, t
> Why should receiving reports be prenumbered? What assertion would an auditor test using the receiving reports, and how would the auditor do this?
> To determine the client’s planned amount and timing of production of a product, the auditor reviews the a. Sales forecast. b. Inventory reports. c. Production plan. d. Purchases journal.
> The purpose of tracing a sample of inventory tags to a client’s computerized listing of inventory items is to determine whether the inventory items a. Represented by tags were included on the listing. b. Included on the listing were properly counted. c.
> Which of the following approaches is most suitable for auditing the finance and investment cycle? a. Perform extensive tests of controls and limit substantive procedures to analytical procedures. b. Ignore internal controls and perform extensive substant
> A portion of a client’s inventory is in public warehouses. Evidence of the existence of this merchandise can most efficiently be acquired through which of the following methods? a. Observation. b. Confirmation. c. Calculation. d. Inspection.
> Which of the following management assertions is an auditor most likely testing if the audit objective states that all inventory on hand is reflected in the ending inventory balance? a. The entity has rights to the inventory. b. Inventory is properly valu
> An auditor is examining a nonpublic company’s inventory procurement system and has decided to perform tests of controls. Under which of the following conditions do GAAS require tests of controls be performed by an auditor? a. Significant weaknesses were
> Your client counts inventory three months before the end of the fiscal year because controls over inventory are excellent. Which procedure is not necessary for the roll-forward? a. Check that shipping documents for the last three months agree with perpet
> What is a compensating control? Give some examples for finance and investment cycle accounts.
> What procedures do auditors employ to audit inventory when the physical inventory is taken on a cycle basis or on a statistical plan but never a complete count on a single date?
> An auditor selected items for test counts while observing a client’s physical inventory. The auditor then traced the test counts to the client’s inventory listing. This procedure most likely obtained evidence concerning management’s balance assertion of
> Describe the activities a company should perform to ensure appropriate reconciliation of marketable securities.
> A client maintains perpetual inventory records in quantities and in dollars. If the assessed control risk is high, an auditor would probably a. Apply gross profit tests to ascertain the reasonableness of the physical counts. b. Increase the extent of tes
> You have been assigned to trace the results of the observation of Brightware China’s physical inventory count to its pricing and compilation. You note the following conditions. 1. The last inventory tag documented by Mark Hulse, the auditor who observed
> Which of the following internal control activities most likely addresses the completeness assertion for inventory? a. The work-in-process account is periodically reconciled with subsidiary inventory records. b. Employees responsible for custody of finish
> Follow the instructions preceding Problem 9.61. Write the audit approach section following the case in the chapter. SueCan Corporation manufactured electronic and other equipment for private customers and government defense contracts. It deferred costs u
> From the auditors’ point of view, inventory counts are more acceptable prior to the year-end when a. Internal control is weak. b. Accurate perpetual inventory records are maintained. c. Inventory is slow moving. d. Significant amounts of inventory are he
> A retailer’s physical count of inventory was higher than that shown by the perpetual records. Which of the following could explain the difference? a. Inventory items had been counted, but the tags placed on the items had not been taken off and added to t
> An auditor usually traces the details of the test counts made during the observation of physical inventory counts to a final inventory compilation. This audit procedure is undertaken to provide evidence that items physically present and observed by the a
> The diagram in Exhibit 9.51.1 describes several cost accounting tests of controls. It shows the direction of the tests, leading from samples of cost accounting analyses, management reports, and the general ledger to blank squares. Required: For each bla
> Mattel Inc., a manufacturer of toys, failed to write off obsolete inventory, thereby overstating inventory and improperly deferred tooling costs, both of which understated cost of goods sold and overstated income. “Excess” inventory was identified by co
> The list of vouchers payable for Potter’s Magic Shoppe at December 31 is as follows: Checks written in the following January are: Required a. Prepare an audit plan for the audit of unrecorded liabilities for Potter’
> What documents would a company need to correctly account for its investment securities, and what information would they obtain from these documents?
> You are supervising the audit fieldwork of Sparta Springs Company and need certain information from Sparta’s equipment records, which are maintained on a computer file. The particular information is (1) net book value of assets so that your assistant can
> Each of the following tests of controls could be performed during the audit of the controls in the production cycle. Required: For each procedure, identify (a) the internal control activity (strength) being tested and (b) the assertion(s) being addresse
